[110903] in tlhIngan-Hol
[tlhIngan Hol] The grammatical number of NOUN + 'ar
daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (Felix Malmenbeck)
Fri Sep 8 15:36:16 2017
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From: Felix Malmenbeck <felixm@kth.se>
To: "tlhingan-hol@kli.org" <tlhingan-hol@kli.org>
Date: Fri, 8 Sep 2017 11:15:59 +0000
Reply-To: tlhingan-hol@kli.org
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In TKD =A76.4, this is written of the word 'ar:
------------
Finally, 'ar how many? how much? follows the noun to which it refers. It ca=
n never follow a noun with a plural suffix
(-pu', -mey, -Du'; see section 3.3.2).
------------
I've always taken this to mean that a noun followed by 'ar is grammatically=
singular, and so we must say, for example, qachvam Dab nuv 'ar?, rather th=
an *qachvam luDab nuv 'ar?*.
However, it now strikes me that there is another possible interpretation, n=
amely that while the noun followed by 'ar is never marked with a plural suf=
fix, it could still be considered grammatically plural, and thus allow for =
sentences such as *qachvam luDab nuv 'ar?*.
Unfortunately, the canonical example sentences we have using 'ar don't real=
ly shine much of a light on this. The only example I've found that uses a =
number-specific verb prefix to go with the NOUN + 'ar construct is nIn 'ar =
wIghaj. ("How much fuel do we have?") However, this example is of limited u=
se, as the quantity of nIn ("fuel") is a presumably continuous, rather than=
discrete; while we would normally treat nIn law' and nIn puS as singular, =
we would treat nuv law' and nuv puS as plural.
Can anybody think of any examples that could help to resolve this matter? O=
r is there an unofficial but commonly accepted answer?
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<p>In TKD =A76.4, this is written of the word <strong>'ar</strong>:</p>
<p><br>
</p>
<p>------------<br>
</p>
<pre><span style=3D"font-family:Calibri,Arial,Helvetica,sans-serif">Finally=
, <strong>'ar</strong> <em>how many? how much?</em> follows the noun to whi=
ch it refers. It can never follow a noun with a plural suffix=0A=
(-<strong>pu</strong><strong>'</strong>, -<strong>mey</strong>, -<strong>Du=
'</strong>; see section 3.3.2).</span></pre>
<p>------------</p>
<p><br>
</p>
<p>I've always taken this to mean that a noun followed by <strong>'ar</stro=
ng> is grammatically singular, and so we must say, for example,
<strong>qachvam</strong><strong> Dab nuv 'ar?</strong>, rather than *q=
achvam luDab nuv 'ar?*.</p>
<p><br>
</p>
<p>However, it now strikes me that there is another possible interpretation=
, namely that while the noun followed by
<strong>'ar</strong> is never marked with a plural <em>suffi=
x</em>, it could still be considered grammatically plural, and thus al=
low for sentences such as *qachvam luDab nuv 'ar?*.<br>
</p>
<p><br>
</p>
<p>Unfortunately, the canonical example sentences we have using <stron=
g>'ar</strong> don't really shine much of a light on this. The only&nb=
sp;example I've found that uses a number-specific verb prefix to go w=
ith the NOUN +
<strong>'ar</strong> construct is <strong>nIn 'ar wIghaj.</strong>&nbs=
p;("How much fuel do we have?") However, this example is of limit=
ed use, as the quantity of
<strong>nIn</strong> ("fuel") is a presumably continuous, ra=
ther than discrete; while we would normally treat
<strong>nIn law'</strong> and <strong>nIn puS</strong> as singula=
r, we would treat
<strong>nuv law'</strong> and <strong>nuv puS</strong> as plural.=
</p>
<p><br>
</p>
<p>Can anybody think of any examples that could help to resolve this matter=
? Or is there an unofficial but commonly accepted answer?<br>
</p>
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