[92427] in tlhIngan-Hol
Re: [Tlhingan-hol] How do we know what -Ha' means? (Was: Re:
daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (De'vID jonpIn)
Sun Mar 4 20:02:51 2012
In-Reply-To: <63C50EE7-2770-47AA-BC49-E95817416B5E@gmail.com>
Date: Mon, 5 Mar 2012 02:02:36 +0100
From: "De'vID jonpIn" <de.vid.jonpin@gmail.com>
To: tlhIngan-Hol@kli.org
Errors-To: tlhingan-hol-bounces@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
lojmIt tI'wI' nuv:
> My point here is that I don't think that {-Ha'} really means that it is either done badly or that it is undone. I think it means a greater extreme of negative than {-be'}. Without considering what {-be'} would mean, you can't fully understand what {-Ha'} means because {-Ha'} exists exclusively to indicate a greater degree of negation than {-be'}.
>
> This can mean something different on different verbs, but it almost never means something different in different contexts on the same verb. This is where I really disagree with most who have answered this post up to this point.
I like this idea that {verb} - {verb-be'} - {verb-Ha'} exist on an
axis and that {verb-Ha'} is a more extreme modification of {verb} than
{verb-be'}. I don't know if it's the right interpretation of {-Ha'},
but I can't think of a counterexample and it does make things a lot
clearer.
--
De'vID
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