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Re: [tlhIngan Hol] Imperatives and {-be'}

daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (SuStel)
Thu Jul 6 15:08:18 2017

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To: tlhingan-hol@lists.kli.org
From: SuStel <sustel@trimboli.name>
Date: Thu, 6 Jul 2017 15:07:44 -0400
In-Reply-To: <e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de>
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On 7/6/2017 2:54 PM, Lieven wrote:
> On 7/6/2017 11:14 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
>>> "Even though tkd says that {-be'} cannot be used with imperatives, 
>>> it seems that this means only that it cannot be used to form 
>>> negative imperatives. For example, a sentence such as {HIleghbe'moH} 
>>> seems to be possible"
>>>
>>> I can't understand this. Isn't the {HIleghbe'moH} a negative 
>>> imperative ? Doesn't it mean "make me not see !" ?
>
> Am 06.07.2017 um 17:28 schrieb SuStel:
>> boQwI' is wrong.
>
> Don't be so strict; just because boQwI' mentions something we have no 
> rue for, it does not mean that it's wrong. As you said, there is no 
> example for or against this, so you cannot be sure at all.

There sure is an example against this: TKD's explicit pronouncement that 
*-be' *is not used with imperatives. And since you can't prove a 
negative, only pronouncements could possibly lead to that rule.

Maybe Okrand meant it only can't be used to negate the sense of /do 
this!/ but he didn't say that.


>
>> I don't know how the creator came to that conclusion. It would be 
>> convenient if we could, but TKD prohibits it and I don't think we've 
>> ever seen a counterexample.
>
> TKD does not explicitely prohibit THIS example, it prohibits using 
> -be' in the puporse of a negative imperative. 

TKD says "The suffix *-be'* cannot be used with imperative verbs." It 
does not draw the distinction you are making. It /does/ explicitly 
prohibit this example. Whether or not that's what Okrand meant is 
another story.


> What we can be sure of is that {HIleghmoHbe'} is forbidden, because 
> the -be' negates the command {HIleghmoH}, so we need -Qo' here.

So how about **yIta'vIpbe'?*


> If I'd stick to the rules, I should just replace the be' with the -Qo' 
> and get {HIleghQo'moH}... but wait: "Unlike {-be',} the position of 
> {-Qo'} does not change" (TKD) so it comes to the end: {HIleghmoHQo'} - 
> but that is something else, right?

TKD doesn't say you replace *-be'* with *-Qo'.*


> Just like the note in boQwI', I am also convinced that the following 
> phrases should be grammatical:
>
> {HIleghmoH} "make me see"
> {HIleghbe'moH} "make me not see"
> It's different from "Don't make me see", which is different in English 
> as well.
> {HIleghbe'moHQo'} "Don't make me not see"

It makes perfect, logical sense. But it's forbidden by TKD. Until such 
time as Okrand gives us an unambiguous example, or delivers a 
pronouncement in one direction or the other, the only evidence that 
exists says you /can't/ do this.


> Anyway, to avoid this, use -Ha' instead. It can be use in imperatives.

But it doesn't mean the same thing. *HIleghHa'moH* means /make me unsee 
it,/ not /make me not see it./

-- 
SuStel
http://trimboli.name


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    <div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 7/6/2017 2:54 PM, Lieven wrote:<br>
    </div>
    <blockquote type="cite"
      cite="mid:e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de">On 7/6/2017
      11:14 AM, mayqel qunenoS wrote:
      <br>
      <blockquote type="cite" style="color: #000000;">
        <blockquote type="cite" style="color: #000000;">"Even though tkd
          says that {-be'} cannot be used with imperatives, it seems
          that this means only that it cannot be used to form negative
          imperatives. For example, a sentence such as {HIleghbe'moH}
          seems to be possible"
          <br>
          <br>
          I can't understand this. Isn't the {HIleghbe'moH} a negative
          imperative ? Doesn't it mean "make me not see !" ?
          <br>
        </blockquote>
      </blockquote>
      <br>
      Am 06.07.2017 um 17:28 schrieb SuStel:
      <br>
      <blockquote type="cite" style="color: #000000;">boQwI' is wrong.
        <br>
      </blockquote>
      <br>
      Don't be so strict; just because boQwI' mentions something we have
      no rue for, it does not mean that it's wrong. As you said, there
      is no example for or against this, so you cannot be sure at all.
      <br>
    </blockquote>
    <br>
    <p>There sure is an example against this: TKD's explicit
      pronouncement that <b>-be' </b>is not used with imperatives. And
      since you can't prove a negative, only pronouncements could
      possibly lead to that rule.<br>
    </p>
    <p>Maybe Okrand meant it only can't be used to negate the sense of <i>do
        this!</i> but he didn't say that.<br>
    </p>
    <br>
    <blockquote type="cite"
      cite="mid:e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de">
      <br>
      <blockquote type="cite" style="color: #000000;">I don't know how
        the creator came to that conclusion. It would be convenient if
        we could, but TKD prohibits it and I don't think we've ever seen
        a counterexample.
        <br>
      </blockquote>
      <br>
      TKD does not explicitely prohibit THIS example, it prohibits using
      -be' in the puporse of a negative imperative. </blockquote>
    <br>
    <p>TKD says "The suffix <b>-be'</b> cannot be used with imperative
      verbs." It does not draw the distinction you are making. It <i>does</i>
      explicitly prohibit this example. Whether or not that's what
      Okrand meant is another story.<br>
    </p>
    <br>
    <blockquote type="cite"
      cite="mid:e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de">What we can
      be sure of is that {HIleghmoHbe'} is forbidden, because the -be'
      negates the command {HIleghmoH}, so we need -Qo' here.
      <br>
    </blockquote>
    <br>
    <p>So how about <b>*yIta'vIpbe'?</b><br>
    </p>
    <br>
    <blockquote type="cite"
      cite="mid:e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de">
      If I'd stick to the rules, I should just replace the be' with the
      -Qo' and get {HIleghQo'moH}... but wait: "Unlike {-be',} the
      position of {-Qo'} does not change" (TKD) so it comes to the end:
      {HIleghmoHQo'} - but that is something else, right?
      <br>
    </blockquote>
    <br>
    <p>TKD doesn't say you replace <b>-be'</b> with <b>-Qo'.</b><br>
    </p>
    <br>
    <blockquote type="cite"
      cite="mid:e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de">
      Just like the note in boQwI', I am also convinced that the
      following phrases should be grammatical:
      <br>
      <br>
      {HIleghmoH} "make me see"
      <br>
      {HIleghbe'moH} "make me not see"
      <br>
      It's different from "Don't make me see", which is different in
      English as well.
      <br>
      {HIleghbe'moHQo'} "Don't make me not see"
      <br>
    </blockquote>
    <br>
    <p>It makes perfect, logical sense. But it's forbidden by TKD. Until
      such time as Okrand gives us an unambiguous example, or delivers a
      pronouncement in one direction or the other, the only evidence
      that exists says you <i>can't</i> do this.</p>
    <br>
    <blockquote type="cite"
      cite="mid:e46dcad8-6d1e-c497-41a2-e41a3baba5e0@gmx.de">
      Anyway, to avoid this, use -Ha' instead. It can be use in
      imperatives.</blockquote>
    <p>But it doesn't mean the same thing. <b>HIleghHa'moH</b> means <i>make
        me unsee it,</i> not <i>make me not see it.</i><br>
    </p>
    <pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">-- 
SuStel
<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext" href="http://trimboli.name">http://trimboli.name</a></pre>
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