[98396] in tlhIngan-Hol

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Re: [Tlhingan-hol] Translating the past

daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (Robyn Stewart)
Sat Apr 12 23:44:30 2014

From: "Robyn Stewart" <robyn@flyingstart.ca>
To: <tlhingan-hol@kli.org>
In-Reply-To: <CABSTb1evmZ6Q==zLh2oQEj3+WNNUVZuYRpak1cRo=R13r-Ws4A@mail.gmail.com>
Date: Sat, 12 Apr 2014 20:44:04 -0700
Errors-To: tlhingan-hol-bounces@kli.org

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> Could one not say {wa'leS ghaH HoHlu'pu'}, indicating that by tomorrow =
he will have gotten himself killed? This sentence uses perfective=20

> but not in any past sense, Klingon cultural attitudes toward counting =
one's chickens notwithstanding. If grammar allows such a construction, =
it > would divorce -pu' and -ta' from any connection with the past, =
except insofar as the past is more somewhat more certain than the =
future.


I don=E2=80=99t think there is any controversy about that sentence. It =
parallels ghorgh tujchoHpu=E2=80=99 bIQ?  I don=E2=80=99t believe anyone =
is arguing that perfective implies past or past requires perfective, and =
if they were, I would think they were wrong.

=20

The controversial area is:

If an action is single and completed, is a timestamp sufficient, or does =
it also require a perfective aspect suffix?
Can <DuqIp=E2=80=99a=E2=80=99?> mean =E2=80=9CDid she hit you?=E2=80=9D =
[once] or only =E2=80=9CDoes she/did she hit you?=E2=80=9D [generally] =
or =E2=80=9CWill she hit you?=E2=80=9D
One of the sticking points is interpretation of the word =
=E2=80=9Cusually=E2=80=9D in the second paragraph of TKD 4.2.7.

=20

- Qov



=20


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vlink=3Dpurple><div class=3DWordSection1><div><div><div><div><p =
class=3DMsoNormal><span style=3D'color:#1F497D'>&gt; </span>Could one =
not say {wa'leS ghaH HoHlu'pu'}, indicating that by tomorrow&nbsp;he =
will have gotten himself killed? This sentence uses perfective <span =
style=3D'color:#1F497D'><o:p></o:p></span></p><p class=3DMsoNormal><span =
style=3D'color:#1F497D'>&gt; </span>but not in any past sense, Klingon =
cultural attitudes toward counting one's chickens notwithstanding. If =
grammar allows such a construction, it <span =
style=3D'color:#1F497D'>&gt; </span>would divorce -pu' and -ta' from any =
connection with the past, except insofar as the past is more somewhat =
more certain than the future.<o:p></o:p></p></div></div><p =
class=3DMsoNormal><br clear=3Dall>I don=E2=80=99t think there is any =
controversy about that sentence. It parallels ghorgh tujchoHpu=E2=80=99 =
bIQ? =C2=A0I don=E2=80=99t believe anyone is arguing that perfective =
implies past or past requires perfective, and if they were, I would =
think they were wrong.<o:p></o:p></p><p =
class=3DMsoNormal><o:p>&nbsp;</o:p></p><p class=3DMsoNormal>The =
controversial area is:<o:p></o:p></p><p class=3DMsoNormal>If an action =
is single and completed, is a timestamp sufficient, or does it also =
require a perfective aspect suffix?<br>Can =
&lt;DuqIp=E2=80=99a=E2=80=99?&gt; mean =E2=80=9CDid she hit =
you?=E2=80=9D [once] or only =E2=80=9CDoes she/did she hit you?=E2=80=9D =
[generally] or =E2=80=9CWill she hit you?=E2=80=9D<br>One of the =
sticking points is interpretation of the word =E2=80=9Cusually=E2=80=9D =
in the second paragraph of TKD 4.2.7.<o:p></o:p></p><p =
class=3DMsoNormal><o:p>&nbsp;</o:p></p><p class=3DMsoNormal>- =
Qov<br><br><o:p></o:p></p><p =
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