[94704] in tlhIngan-Hol
Re: [Tlhingan-hol] how does {-Ha'} work on verbs that affect
daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (David Trimboli)
Wed Sep 19 19:33:19 2012
Date: Wed, 19 Sep 2012 19:32:50 -0400
From: David Trimboli <david@trimboli.name>
To: tlhingan-hol@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
In-Reply-To: <CA+7zAmNgug3_QzZMwa9NJuqMaUH2UQccfKHoSHY38oXFuF9htw@mail.gmail.com>
Errors-To: tlhingan-hol-bounces@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
On 9/19/2012 6:25 PM, De'vID wrote:
>
> De'vID:
>>> ... Could {nobHa'} mean both "give back" and
>>> ?"ungive, take back", depending on the context (i.e., whether the
>>> subject of {nobHa'} was the original giver or recipient of {nob})?
>
> SuStel:
>> -Ha' doesn't undo the situation you're in; it undoes the meaning of the
>> verb, outside of any context. The question is really what the meaning of
>> "give-undone" is. It could be "return" or it could be "take back."
>> Fortunately, the canonical example answers this for us: it is "return."
>
> Then do you think we can infer nothing about the meanings of {ngevHa'}
> and {ngeHHa'}?
>
> That is, {ngevHa'} means one of "sell back"/"get a refund" (original
> buyer does this) or "buy back" (original seller does this), but we
> cannot know which one unless a Klingon tells us explicitly?
Yes.
--
SuStel
http://www.trimboli.name/
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