[94068] in tlhIngan-Hol
[Tlhingan-hol] nuq bop bom: 'ay' cha'vatlh cha'maH cha': 'omwI'pu'
daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (De'vID)
Mon Jul 16 03:21:53 2012
In-Reply-To: <CA+7zAmOokWLXc+PyzJxCdsoCKBqV51=8FL1mCFXBLWrKoq+x2w@mail.gmail.com>
Date: Mon, 16 Jul 2012 09:21:25 +0200
From: "De'vID" <de.vid.jonpin@gmail.com>
To: tlhIngan-Hol <tlhingan-hol@kli.org>
Errors-To: tlhingan-hol-bounces@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
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Qov:
>>> nuHmeyDaj chaH neH."
Maybe use a verb like {Da} or {'oS} instead of {chaH}?
ghunchu'wI':
>> munuQ <neH> lo'vam.
>>
>> Whenever I write something like this, I usually end up changing it to
>> put {neH} after the object instead of after the pronoun. On the other
>> hand, when I write it that way in the first place, I often end up
>> changing it to be the way you wrote it. Do you want to trivialize the
>> idea of "be her weapons", or do you want to say they are her weapons
>> and nothing more? I have the feeling there is an important distinction
>> to be made between the two. My inclination today is not to trivialize
>> the "to be", and I think {neH} should be moved.
>>
>> Does that make sense?
{nuHmeyDaj neH chaH}
Which applies first, the {neH} or the {-Daj}? Can this be read as "they're
her only weapons (and she has no other weapon)"? (And if not, how would
one express this latter idea?)
I read the above as "they're only her weapons", "they're her weapons and
they're not anything else", in a literal sense. Is this literally the
case, or does she merely treat them or think of them that way? I think the
English "they're only her X" is idiomatic for "they're merely X to her",
but this idiom may not carry into Klingon.
I think {ghaHvaD nuHmey neH chaH} is clearer.
Qov:
> yaj. It's the way it is because I don't want it read as "They want her
weapons.". To my understanding, neH after a boy trivializes the noun and
after a verb, the whole phrase.
Boy?
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De'vID
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De'vID
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<br>Qov:<br>>>> nuHmeyDaj chaH neH."<br><br>Maybe use a verb =
like {Da} or {'oS} instead of {chaH}?<br><br>ghunchu'wI':<br>&g=
t;> munuQ <neH> lo'vam.<br>>><br>>> Whenever I wri=
te something like this, I usually end up changing it to<br>
>> put {neH} after the object instead of after the pronoun. On the ot=
her<br>>> hand, when I write it that way in the first place, I often =
end up<br>>> changing it to be the way you wrote it. Do you want to t=
rivialize the<br>
>> idea of "be her weapons", or do you want to say they are=
her weapons<br>>> and nothing more? I have the feeling there is an i=
mportant distinction<br>>> to be made between the two. My inclination=
today is not to trivialize<br>
>> the "to be", and I think {neH} should be moved.<br>>&=
gt;<br>>> Does that make sense?<br><br>{nuHmeyDaj neH chaH}<br><br>Wh=
ich applies first, the {neH} or the {-Daj}? =A0Can this be read as "th=
ey're her only weapons (and she has no other weapon)"? =A0(And if =
not, how would one express this latter idea?)<br>
<br>I read the above as "they're only her weapons", "the=
y're her weapons and they're not anything else", in a literal =
sense. =A0Is this literally the case, or does she merely treat them or thin=
k of them that way? =A0I think the English "they're only her X&quo=
t; is idiomatic for "they're merely X to her", but this idiom=
may not carry into Klingon.<br>
<br>I think {ghaHvaD nuHmey neH chaH} is clearer.<br><br><br>Qov:<br>> y=
aj. It's the way it is because I don't want it read as "They w=
ant her weapons.". To my understanding, neH after a boy trivializes th=
e noun and after a verb, the whole phrase.<br>
<br>Boy?<br><br>--<br>De'vID<br><br><br>-- <br>De'vID<br>
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