[91950] in tlhIngan-Hol
Re: [Tlhingan-hol] qIHpu'ghach wa'DIch: 'ay' cha'
daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (David Trimboli)
Mon Jan 30 14:52:22 2012
Date: Mon, 30 Jan 2012 14:52:02 -0500
From: David Trimboli <david@trimboli.name>
To: tlhingan-hol@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
In-Reply-To: <CA+7zAmMy-Tgb8CyqZJmuFEPjFR8BRewU-v8tQ01BmhgxFiFj4g@mail.gmail.com>
Errors-To: tlhingan-hol-bounces@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
On 1/30/2012 2:36 PM, De'vID jonpIn wrote:
>
> loghaD:
> > qeylIS betleH would probably be held as a betleH'a', but it's not
> called qeylIS betleH'a'; it receives its grandeur from being prefixed by
> "qeylIS". If you were to refer to qeylIS betleH'a', I'd assume you were
> talking about the greatest of his many betleHmey.
>
> How would you interpret the following?
> {qeylIS mIv'a'}
> {qeylIS Daqtagh'a' DuQwI'Hommey}
> {lopno' 'uQ'a'}
>
> I don't think {qeylIS betleH} is a {betleH'a'} merely by virtue of being
> associated with Kahless, unless it was already considered a {betleH'a'}
> by itself. Kahless can carry a {tajHom}, just like anybody else.
{-'a'} and {-Hom} tend to be abused around here, much like {-ghach}.
Avoid using them unless your usage is canonical, or if you know beyond a
doubt that you've got it right. Otherwise, they're likely to be
"hindsight suffixes": they make sense as a translation only if you know
the original source text.
I have no idea what a {betleH'a'} would be. It's not a {betleH}, and
it's not just an "important {betleH}." If your meaning would be served
by an adjectivally acting verb, it doesn't need {-'a'} or {-Hom}.
--
SuStel
http://www.trimboli.name/
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