daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (Rohan Fenwick - QeS 'utlh)
Sat Jan 21 05:58:47 2012
From: Rohan Fenwick - QeS 'utlh <qeslagh@hotmail.com>
To: <tlhingan-hol@kli.org>
Date: Sat, 21 Jan 2012 20:58:33 +1000
In-Reply-To: <CA+7zAmNGMcFCNdEqK8C5w+-Uw2RAW+E_g0Vm8niMoDWfP+j14g@mail.gmail.com>
Errors-To: tlhingan-hol-bounces@stodi.digitalkingdom.org
jIjatlhpu':
> Makes sense. If that's the case, then in order to say that you cover
> X with Y, you'd have to say {X velmeH Y vIlo'} or {Y-vaD X vIvelmoH};
mujang De'vID, jatlh:
> I think you mean {X-vaD Y vIvelmoH}?
Nope. We only have a single clear example of a causative of a divalent
verb, but it shows that it's the *subject* of the non-causative form
that gets demoted to the {-vaD} position in the causative, so:
ghaHvaD quHDaj qawmoH
It reminds him of his heritage. (S20)
Compare the non-causative form, which would be {quHDaj qaw ghaH} "he
remembers his heritage". So in your example, {DoS Qaw' pu'HIch} would
become {pu'HIchvaD DoS vIQaw'moH}.
The logic seems to be that in the causative, you get a new subject. The
object of the basic verb stays the same - the {DoS} is still getting
{Qaw'}ed - but the original subject is having something done *to* it.
It might seem weird, but there are several Earth languages that do the
same thing.
QeS 'utlh
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