[1822] in tlhIngan-Hol
Re: (Ha' vs. be')
daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU (daemon@ATHENA.MIT.EDU)
Thu Oct 21 19:56:17 1993
Reply-To: "Klingon Language List" <tlhIngan-Hol@klingon.east.sun.com>
From: laibow@brick.purchase.edu (The Songbringer -- Marnen to the common fol
k)
To: "Klingon Language List" <tlhIngan-Hol@klingon.east.sun.com>
Date: Thu, 21 Oct 93 19:49:55 EDT
In-Reply-To: <9310212336.AA25464@client.its.rpi.edu>; from "cleggp@rpi.edu" at
Oct 21, 93 7:36 pm
tlha'bogh Doch jatlh marqoS:
:
:
: \I thought -Ha' was "to undo"? If muS is "to hate", then you'd want muSbe'
: \wouldn't you? It's a thin line, but I was always under the impression that
: \"-be'" NEGATED the verb, while "-Ha'" UNDID the verb...
: Exactly. So "qamuSbe'" is "I don't hate you", whereas "qamuSHa'" is
: "I dishate you", or "I love you". Very different meanings. It's analogous t
o
: "like" and "dislike" - which are "parHa'" and "par" in TKD. Ample
: justification for "muSHa'" as "love", IMHO.
For those Lojbanists out there, then, it seems to me that >-be'< corresponds
(roughly) to {na'e} (other_than), while >-Ha'< corresponds (equally roughly) to
{to'e} (polar_opposite).
:
: -marqoS
:
Qapla' Qichqemwi'vo'.
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